Does the Omniscient Viewpoint Matter?

Here again I'm arguing against moral relativism because it's something I like to do.  Perhaps someone has used this argument before and I've just never seen it.

Suppose we have a court case, and the man is found guilty by the jury because the evidence is compelling and strong.  But also suppose the man is innocent despite the indication of the evidence (kind of like a Sherlock Holmes story).  The jury just voted him guilty because of their limited perception, but really did their best given their lack of omniscience.  You can't bash their integrity for doing what they could with the tools they had.

Now moral relativists would classify the man on trial as immoral because his moral status was determined by consensus after some due diligence.  Even more so if the general public pretty much agrees with the verdict.  But what about the omniscient viewpoint - you know, the only one that can even potentially detect his innocence?  Does that viewpoint mean anything?